Category Archives: Medical MCQS

Anatomy question 2

Pain in posterior 1/3rd of tongue after
tonsillectomy indicates injury of :
A. VII nerve
B. IX nerve
C. V nerve
D. XII nerve

 

 

 

 

Answer is B. IX nerve

Pharmacology MCQS 2

1q: A highly ionized drug
a. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
b. Can cross the placental barrier easily
c. Is well absorbed from the intestine
d. Accumulates in the cellular lipids

2q: All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except
a. Adrenaline
b. GH
c. Insulin
d. Thyroxine

3q: Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?
a. It is not associated with atrophy of adrenal glands
b. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids
c. It should be expected in anyone receiving greater than 5mg of prednisolone daily
d. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks

4q: With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?
a. Histamine receptors
b. Bradykinin receptors
c. Adenosine receptors
d. Imidazoline receptors

5q: Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Atropine
c. Neostigmine
d. Fentanyl

6q: Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of flux?
a. Ondansetron
b. Metaclopramide
c. Sodium citrate
d. Atropine

7q: The following drugss have significant drug interactions with digoxin except :
a. Cholestyramine
b. Thiazide diuretics
c. Quinine
d. Amlodipine

8q: One of the following is not true about nesiritide
a. It is a brain natriuretic peptide analogue
b. It is used in acutely decompensated heart failure
c. It has significant oral absorption
d. It has a short half life

9q: Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of
a. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
b. Serotonergic receptors
c. Dopaminergic receptors
d. GABA receptors

10q: The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that
a. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin
b. The former cause tardive dyskinesia
c. The former are available as parenteral preparations
d. The latter cause substantial sedation

11q: Antipsychotic drug induced parkinsonism is treated by
a. Anticholinergics
b. Levodopa
c. Selegilline
d. Amantadine

12q: Oculogyric crisis is known to be produced by all of the following drugs except
a. Trifluoperazine
b. Atropine
c. Perchlorperazine
d. Perphenazine

13q: Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
a. Phenobarbitone
b. Flumazenil
c. Beta-carboline
d. Gabapentin

14q: All of the following are hallucinogens except
a. LSD
b. Phencyclidine
c. Mescaline
d. Methylphenidate

15q: All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except
a. Sulphacetamide
b. Sulphadiazine
c. Silver sulphadiazine
d. Mafenide

16q: One of the following is not pencillinase susceptible
a. Amoxicillin
b. Pencillin G
c. Piperacillin
d. Cloxacillin

17q: The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is
a. Tetracyclines
b. Polypeptide antibiotics
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Macrolides

18q: Which one of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine?
a. Antimycobacterial
b. Antifungal
c. Antimalarial
d. Antiamoebic

19q: Which one of the following is used in therapy of Toxoplasmosis?
a. Artensunate
b. Thiacetazone
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Pyrimethamine

20q: Nevirapine is a
a. Protease inhibitor
b. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
c. NNRTI
d. Fusion inhibitor

21q: Which one of the following drugs is “Topoisomerase I” inhibitor?
a. Doxorubicin
b. Irinotecan
c. Etoposide
d. Vincristine

 

22q: Etanercept acts by one of the following mechanisms
a. By blocking Tumor necrosis factor
b. By blocking bradykinin synthesis
c. By inhibiting COX-2
d. By blocking lipoxygenase

 

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Pharmacology MCQS 1

Q1. All the following are the actions of acetylcholine except

1-Increase in heart rate
2-Dilatation of pupil
3-Contraction of detrusor muscle
4-Increased salivation

Q2. Which of the following is not a cholinergic drug
1-Scopolamine
2-Muscarine
3-Pilocarpine
4-Bethenacol

Q3. The atropine derivative used in the treatment of bronchial asthma is
1-Homatropine
2-Oxybutynin
3-Pirenzepine
4-Ipratropium

Q4. Which of the following statements is not true regarding neostigmine
1-It is a reversible anticholinesterase
2-It crosses the blood brain barrier
3-It is used to treat myasthenia gravis
4-It should not be used in organophosphorus poisoning

Q5. The tetracycline antibiotic that does not require dose reduction in renal failure is
1-Doxycycline
2-Demeclocycline
3-Minocycline
4-Oxytetracycline

Q6. Which among the following organisms is not inhibited by tetracyclines?
1-Clostridia
2-Actinomyces
3-Campylobacter jejuni
4-Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Q7. All the following are indications for use of metronidazole except
1-Pseudomembranous colitis
2-Ulcerative gingivitis
3-Streptococcal pneumonia
4-H. pylori eradication

Q8. The aminoglycoside with broadest spectrum of action is
1-Streptomycin
2-Amikacin
3-Gentamicin
4-Neomycin

Q9. Which of the following aminoglycoside is not used topically?
1-Gentamicin
2-Framycetin
3-Streptomycin
4-Neomycin

Q10. The common feature of aminoglycoside antibiotics is
1-Time dependent bactericidal action
2-More active in acidic pH
3-Good oral absorption
4-Postantibiotic effect

Q11. The advantage of clopidogrel over ticlopidine as an antiplatelet agent is
1-Better efficacy
2-Better potency
3-Longer duration of action
4-Lesser incidence of neutropenia

Q12. The target INR to be maintained in a patient on warfarin therapy is
1- 0.5-1
2- 2-3
3- 5-7
5- 10-12

Q13. Which of the following is used to treat acute gastrointestinal bleeding due to warfarin overdosage
1-Fresh blood transfusion
2-Vitamin K1
3-Tranexamic acid
4-Eptifibatide

Q14. The indication for use of phytonadione is
1-Postpartum hemorrhage
2-Total parenteral nutrition
3-Thrombolytic overdosage
4-Hemophilia

Q15. Which among the following drugs would be preferred for prophylaxis of stroke in a patient with transient ischemic attacks
1-Abciximab
2-Warfarin
3-Enoxaparin
4-Clopidogrel

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Answers to Medial MCQS 1

Answers to Medial MCQS 1

 

1-E

2- The correct answer is C
Explanation
The VATER association is a grouping of complex anomalies which is comprised of congenital abnormalities of many systems. At least 3 or more of these following anomalies must be present for a child to be diagnosed as having VATER association : Vertebral defect i.e., hemi-vertebra, sacral agenesis. Isaac has an extra vertebra in his neck and seven hemi-vertebra (half formed) in his upper back. Anorectal malformation or imperforate anus. Isaac had no anal opening when he was born. Dr. Morgan actually created one, through a series of surgeries this year. Tracheoesophageal fistula. AND Esophageal atresia with or without TE (tracheoesophageal) fistula. Renal anomalies. Some children are born with one kidney or other renal deformities. Isaac had a lower intestine connection to his renal system. Radial dysplasia or aplasia. Isaac is missing his left radial. (One of the bones in his forearm.)

 

3-Correct answer is B

 

4- Correct answer is A

 

5-Correct answer is B

 

6- Correct answer is B

 

7-Correct answer is B

 

8- Correct answer is D

 

9- Correct answer is B

 

10- Correct answer is B

 

11- Correct answer is E

 

12-Correct answer is A

 

13-Correct answer is B

 

14- Correct answer is E

 

15- Correct answer is A

 

16- Correct answer is D

 

17-Correct answer is D

 

18-Correct answer is C

 

19-Correct answer is 3

 

20-Correct answer is B

Medical MCQS 1

1-severity of acute panreatits determined by:
A concentration of serum amylase
B. amount of urinary amylase secreted over 24 hours
C.clinical scoring system
D. amount of peripanreatic fluid collection as determined by ct scan
E. all of above

 

2-One of the most recognised features of the VATER anomaly is

a) Choanal Atresia
b) Laryngomalacia
c) Tracheoesophageal Fistula
d) Double aortic arch
e) Foreign body aspiration

 

3-Q. Which is the antibody class most often seen in the immune complexes associated with Henoch-Schönlein Purpura

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

 

4-Q. Which of the positions best describes the location of celiac plexus
A. Anterolateral to aorta
B. Posterolateral to aorta
C. Anterolateral to sympathetic chain
D. Anteromedical to sympathetic chain

 

5-Deafness can be caused by
a. Barbiturates
b. Quinine
c. Nifedipine
d. Mannitol

 

6-Optic neuritis is a complication of
a. Streptomycin
b. Ethambutol
c. INH
d. Pyrazinamide

 

7-Which of the following is a contraindication for using a laryngeal mask airway ?
a) when inhalational anaesthesia is required
b) large obstructive lesion in the oropharynx
c) Maintaining airway during difficult intubation
d) Emergency management of airway in failed intubation
e) bronchoscopy in the awake patient

 

8-Use of which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Digoxin
B. Nifedipine
C. Amoxycillin
D. Enalapril

 

9-Hemophilia A (classical hemophilia) is due to deficiency of
A. Factor I
B. Factor VIII
C. Calcium
D. Factor XI

 

10-Bone metastasis in male commonly arises from cancer of :

A. Lung
B. Prostate
C. Kidney
D. Thyroid
E. Liver

11-Among the cardiovascular anomalies of newborns, the one most likely to present with cyanosis is :

a. Patent ductus arteriosus
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Ventricular septal defect
e. Transposition of the great vessels

 

12-Which of the following are absolute contraindications to the use of an intrauterine contraceptive device.
(a) Past history of pelvic inflammatory disease.
(b) Past history of sickle cell disease.
(c) Past history of termination of pregnancy.
(d) Past history of an abnormal cervical smear.
(e) Past history of heart valve replacement..

 

13-Auspitz sign is seen in
a. Neurodermatitis
b. Psoriasis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Herpes zoster

 

14-Which of the following is the most common cause of portal hypertension

A. Hepatic vein thrombosis

B. Hepatic venoocclusive disease

C. Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis

D. Portal vein obstruction

E. Cirrhosis

 

15-Libman-Sachs endocarditis is a feature of
a. SLE
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Marfan’s syndrome
d. Sclerderma

 

16-Di George syndrome is commonly associated with all of the following except
A. cono-truncal anomalies in heart
B. dysmorphic facies
C. cellular immunodeficiency
D. hypercalcemia

 

17-Which of the two antibodies strongly suggest Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A. Anti centromere antibodies
B. Anti Smith antigen antibodies
C. Anti-DNA topoisomerase antibodies
D. Anti-double strand DNA antibodies

 

18-Most common cause of Coarctation of Aorta is?

A .drug toxicity
B. Prematurity
C. Chromosomal abnormality
D. Viral infection

 

19-Drug used in estrogen dependent breast cancer

1. Estrogen
2. Adriamycin
3. Tamoxifen
4. Clomiphene citrate

 

20-Reticulocytosis after iron treatment of
IDA peaks after
a. 48 hrs.
b. 7 days.
c. 4 weeks.
d. 3 months.

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